I'm wondering this with regard to the argument that the publication, by Risen and Lichtblau, that the NSA had been conducting illegal wiretaps since 2002 somehow constituted a violation of national security laws.
Um, the program's illegal, right? How can an illegal program be protected by declaring it to be classified? (I ask this as a question for legal experts, not as a practical question. I mean, duh, the government has to classify anything that it's doing beyond its legal mandate, if it wants to pursue an action contrary to the law.)
Seriously, which is closer to treason, breaking the law or talking about somebody else who broke the law?
Well, if you believe in the restitution of Divine Right, which I thought had gone out of fashion hundreds of years ago, it all comes down to which person is the Republican.
Those wacky American supremacists!